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Free CESCO Practice Questions

10 free, exam-style Certified Environmental and Safety Compliance Officer (CESCO) practice questions with answers and explanations. No signup required. Work through them below, then take the full free CESCO practice test to study every exam domain.

These 10 free CESCO questions are organized by exam domain, so you can see how each part of the Certified Environmental and Safety Compliance Officer blueprint is tested. Reveal the answer and explanation under each question.

Domain 1: Environmental, Health and Safety Auditing 10% of exam

Question 1

A large chemical facility conducts an internal environmental compliance audit and discovers a violation of its NPDES permit. Within 10 days, the facility voluntarily discloses the violation in writing to EPA, corrects the discharge within 45 days, and meets all other conditions of the EPA Incentives for Self-Policing Policy. Which of the following BEST describes the penalty the facility may still owe?

  1. The economic benefit portion of the penalty, because it is not eligible for mitigation under the Audit Policy regardless of disclosure
  2. No penalty, because full voluntary disclosure and correction eliminate all penalty components
  3. A 25% gravity-based penalty, because only 75% of gravity-based penalties are waived for voluntary disclosures
  4. The gravity-based penalty only, because economic benefit penalties are always waived when disclosure is made within 21 days
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - The economic benefit portion of the penalty, because it is not eligible for mitigation under the Audit Policy regardless of disclosure

Domain 2: RCRA 30% of exam

Question 2

A manufacturing facility generates 600 kg of non-acute hazardous waste in January and 1,100 kg in February. The facility has no acute hazardous waste. Which of the following BEST describes the facility's generator status in February?

  1. Small Quantity Generator (SQG), because the two-month average is below 1,000 kg
  2. Large Quantity Generator (LQG), because February generation meets or exceeds 1,000 kg
  3. SQG, because the January figure controls and must be re-evaluated quarterly
  4. Very Small Quantity Generator (VSQG), because the facility did not exceed LQG in both months
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - Large Quantity Generator (LQG), because February generation meets or exceeds 1,000 kg

Question 3

Which of the following statements about EPA Identification Numbers under RCRA is INCORRECT?

  1. A facility's EPA Identification Number is the same as its CERCLA identification number
  2. Hazardous waste generators must obtain an EPA ID Number before transporting waste off-site
  3. EPA ID Numbers are site-specific and do not transfer if a facility changes ownership
  4. A facility obtains its EPA ID Number by notifying EPA or the authorized state agency using EPA Form 8700-12
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: A - A facility's EPA Identification Number is the same as its CERCLA identification number

Question 4

A facility generates F005 spent xylene waste that does not yet meet the Universal Treatment Standards (UTS) concentration limits required before land disposal. A plant engineer proposes blending the F005 waste with large quantities of non-hazardous process water to bring xylene concentrations below the UTS limits, then sending the diluted mixture to an on-site wastewater treatment unit. Which of the following BEST describes the regulatory status of this approach?

  1. Permissible, because dilution is a recognized treatment method under 40 CFR 268 if the final mixture meets UTS limits
  2. Permissible if the facility has a RCRA storage permit that authorizes blending operations
  3. Prohibited, because RCRA Land Disposal Restrictions explicitly forbid dilution as a substitute for required treatment
  4. Permissible only if the wastewater treatment unit holds both a RCRA permit and an NPDES permit
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - Prohibited, because RCRA Land Disposal Restrictions explicitly forbid dilution as a substitute for required treatment

Domain 3: Hazardous Material and Regulations 11% of exam

Question 5

A highway carrier is transporting a single 50-pound cylinder of chlorine (Division 2.3, Poison Gas, Inhalation Hazard Zone A) - a DOT Table 1 hazardous material. The shipment also contains 800 pounds of a Division 3 flammable liquid, a Table 2 material. Which placarding requirement applies?

  1. No placard is required for the chlorine because the quantity is below 1,001 pounds
  2. A FLAMMABLE placard is required for the flammable liquid only, because it exceeds 500 pounds
  3. Placards are not required because proper labels on the cylinders satisfy the requirement for small loads
  4. A POISON GAS placard is required for the chlorine regardless of quantity, and no FLAMMABLE placard is required because the flammable liquid is below 1,001 pounds
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - A POISON GAS placard is required for the chlorine regardless of quantity, and no FLAMMABLE placard is required because the flammable liquid is below 1,001 pounds

Domain 4: OSHA 6% of exam

Question 6

Which of the following statements about HAZWOPER emergency responder training levels under 29 CFR 1910.120 is INCORRECT?

  1. First Responder Awareness level personnel are trained to recognize a hazardous substance release and notify authorities, but take no further action
  2. First Responder Operations level personnel are trained to take offensive actions, including stopping or plugging the source of a hazardous substance release
  3. Hazmat Technician level personnel are trained to take offensive actions to plug, patch, or stop releases of hazardous substances
  4. On-Scene Incident Commander level personnel are trained to assume control of the incident command system at a hazardous substance emergency
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - First Responder Operations level personnel are trained to take offensive actions, including stopping or plugging the source of a hazardous substance release

Domain 5: Environmental Site Assessments 11% of exam

Question 7

A Phase I ESA reveals that a former dry-cleaning operation on the subject property released perchloroethylene (PCE) to soil and groundwater. State regulators approved a remediation plan, and cleanup was completed. However, the regulatory closure letter requires the property to remain in commercial use only and prohibits groundwater extraction on-site in perpetuity. How should the environmental professional classify this finding under ASTM E1527-21?

  1. Historical Recognized Environmental Condition (HREC), because the release has been remediated and received regulatory closure
  2. De minimis condition, because the release was fully addressed by the remediation plan
  3. Controlled Recognized Environmental Condition (CREC), because institutional controls remain in place as a condition of closure
  4. Recognized Environmental Condition (REC), because PCE is a chlorinated solvent and always requires Phase II investigation
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: C - Controlled Recognized Environmental Condition (CREC), because institutional controls remain in place as a condition of closure

Domain 6: Other Environmental Acts 32% of exam

Question 8

A new industrial facility is proposed in a county that is designated as nonattainment for ozone under the Clean Air Act. The facility qualifies as a major source under New Source Review (NSR). Which emission control standard applies to this facility's pre-construction permit?

  1. Best Available Control Technology (BACT), because NSR always requires BACT
  2. New Source Performance Standards (NSPS), because the facility is a new source
  3. Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT), because ozone is a hazardous air pollutant
  4. Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER), because the facility is in a nonattainment area
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER), because the facility is in a nonattainment area

Question 9

During a night shift, a chemical plant accidentally releases 5 pounds of anhydrous ammonia - an Extremely Hazardous Substance (EHS) with a CERCLA reportable quantity of 100 lbs and an EPCRA §304 reportable quantity of 100 lbs. The release is 5 pounds - below both reportable quantities. A second incident that same shift releases an additional 200 pounds of anhydrous ammonia. Which notifications are required for the second release?

  1. Notify the National Response Center (NRC) only, because CERCLA is the primary federal notification statute
  2. Notify the NRC under CERCLA §103 AND notify the SERC and LEPC under EPCRA §304
  3. Notify the SERC and LEPC under EPCRA §304 only, because ammonia is an EHS and EPCRA supersedes CERCLA for EHS releases
  4. No notification is required because the two releases occurred during the same shift and must be treated as a single event below the RQ
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: B - Notify the NRC under CERCLA §103 AND notify the SERC and LEPC under EPCRA §304

Question 10

In April 2024, EPA finalized the first-ever National Primary Drinking Water Regulation specifically for per- and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS). Under this rule, what are the individual enforceable Maximum Contaminant Levels (MCLs) established for both PFOA and PFOS?

  1. 10 nanograms per liter (ng/L), consistent with the MCLs set for other regulated PFAS compounds in the same rule
  2. 70 parts per trillion (ppt), based on EPA's previously established lifetime health advisory for PFOA and PFOS combined
  3. Zero, because EPA set the MCLG at zero for both compounds and the MCL must match the MCLG
  4. 4.0 nanograms per liter (ng/L), individually for each compound
Show answer & explanation

Correct answer: D - 4.0 nanograms per liter (ng/L), individually for each compound

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